I'm only about 8 weeks into our Zendesk usage so I am probably not quite understanding how something is working here. On 3 occasions now an internal email (not sent through ZD) has been sent to a customer and hopefully somebody can help me work out why. We use our own email address for our ZD which is using an SPF record so customers don't see our ZD email address if that is relevant at all. Here is the chain of events that led to the last case.
A call in placed to our desk and a new ticket logged. The agent emailed the user via ZD and set as pending.
One of our sales team takes a call from the customer and emails our support inbox informing us of the update. This was a brand new email created in Outlook and this resulted in a second ticket being open (the sales team do not use ZD).
The agent merged that email with the original ticket which added the sales person as a CC on the original ticket.
Next the agent started a new email in outlook to advise the sales person that we would follow up. This was manually pasted into the original ticket as an internal note.
The customer replied to the agent's ZD email with the information the agent requested. The sales person who was CC'd got a notification of this.
The agent removed the sales person from the CC box, added a public note answering the customer and marked the ticket as solved. This update was emailed to the customer as expected.
Now this is the bit I don't get. The sales person started another new email in Outlook and sent it to our support inbox (a followup question) and this not only reopened the ticket it (and notified the agent) it added this comment as a public one and sent the new public comment to the requester!
Now I know ZD matches emails to call using codes and I am aware of the mail api # commands (which we don't currently use) and that mail headers are also used. What I don't understand is how that second email from the sales team got matched up with the ticket given that it was a new email that didn't have any of those. Anyone have any ideas?